Consider the following fanciful hypothetical scenario.
Suppose HMRC had bribed MPs to vote for s58.
Would that have any bearing on whether the end result (s58 as enacted) complied with HR conventions and EU treaties?
I don't believe it would, and so it would not be the concern of a court hearing a judicial review.
It sounds crazy doesn't it but sadly I don't think it matters how s58 came about.
Suppose HMRC had bribed MPs to vote for s58.
Would that have any bearing on whether the end result (s58 as enacted) complied with HR conventions and EU treaties?
I don't believe it would, and so it would not be the concern of a court hearing a judicial review.
It sounds crazy doesn't it but sadly I don't think it matters how s58 came about.
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