Hi I'm a newbie to this forum but I would like your opinion:
I've on several occasions requested a signed copy of contract from my previous client to no joy and as a result I have gone out and found a new contract (signed). Legally I'm obliged to give them a 30-day notice period despite the fact I have no signed contract?
PS: My client always paid me on agreed rates even though no signed contract was given.
I've on several occasions requested a signed copy of contract from my previous client to no joy and as a result I have gone out and found a new contract (signed). Legally I'm obliged to give them a 30-day notice period despite the fact I have no signed contract?
PS: My client always paid me on agreed rates even though no signed contract was given.
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