Just a quick question about dividends and tax.
Currently I have been paying out my personal salary (as per the salary schedule my accountant created for me) and my dividends (roughly per FreeAgent's calculations) each month.
This generally occurs around the 4-6th of each month as that is when my invoices are generally paid.
As such my company has just finished today the last round of salary/dividend payments for the financial year ending on the 1st of April.
I've been looking through FreeAgent's Self Assessment calculation sheet and had a question....
Since I've only been trading since mid-Oct this year I've currently earned through dividends from my company £15,720.00
I've heard mention before and also FreeAgent's Self Assessment page makes reference to it, that there is a Extended Basic Rate Band of up to £18,622.40
Firstly, does this mean I can earn up to £18,622.40 from dividends before having to pay tax on them?
(Also once over that mark do you pay tax on all your dividends earnings or just the amount over the Extended Basic Rate Band?)
Assuming the above is true does that then mean I can personally receive a further £2902.40 in dividends this financial year without affecting my tax due?
Assuming that THAT is also true, is it then prudent for my company to issue another dividend to myself for that gap amount?
This will bring my personal dividend tax allowance right up to the line for the current financial year.
Because my company will effectively be pre-paying most of next month's dividend to myself then the dividend due to be paid out on the 4-6th of April (which I believe falls into the 11/12 tax year?) will be smaller, thus reducing my 11/12 total dividends received by April 2012, thus reducing my tax owed in the 11/12 financial year.
Is this all correct? It seems to make sense to me, pay right up to the top of the zero tax band this year, thus reducing income next year, thus reducing tax burden next year. Correct?
The one issue is that I have already paid out in dividends all of the retained profits for my company from the 10/11 tax year.
The bank account now only contains Company Tax owed, NI(Employer/Employee) owed and PAYE owed.
If I paid a further £2902.40 in dividends this would essentially be using the Company Tax "pot" which is simply sitting there until Jan 2012.
Is it ok and legal to do this? Obviously the first dividend issued for the 11/12 year would be £2902.40 LESS than normal, thus the Company Tax "pot" would be repaid in asap, ie April (I'm not stupid!).
It seems to all work out to me but I just wondered if from an accounting and legal point of view you can issue dividends however/whenever you like as long as you have the cash to cover your tax debts when they are eventually due?
Currently I have been paying out my personal salary (as per the salary schedule my accountant created for me) and my dividends (roughly per FreeAgent's calculations) each month.
This generally occurs around the 4-6th of each month as that is when my invoices are generally paid.
As such my company has just finished today the last round of salary/dividend payments for the financial year ending on the 1st of April.
I've been looking through FreeAgent's Self Assessment calculation sheet and had a question....
Since I've only been trading since mid-Oct this year I've currently earned through dividends from my company £15,720.00
I've heard mention before and also FreeAgent's Self Assessment page makes reference to it, that there is a Extended Basic Rate Band of up to £18,622.40
Firstly, does this mean I can earn up to £18,622.40 from dividends before having to pay tax on them?
(Also once over that mark do you pay tax on all your dividends earnings or just the amount over the Extended Basic Rate Band?)
Assuming the above is true does that then mean I can personally receive a further £2902.40 in dividends this financial year without affecting my tax due?
Assuming that THAT is also true, is it then prudent for my company to issue another dividend to myself for that gap amount?
This will bring my personal dividend tax allowance right up to the line for the current financial year.
Because my company will effectively be pre-paying most of next month's dividend to myself then the dividend due to be paid out on the 4-6th of April (which I believe falls into the 11/12 tax year?) will be smaller, thus reducing my 11/12 total dividends received by April 2012, thus reducing my tax owed in the 11/12 financial year.
Is this all correct? It seems to make sense to me, pay right up to the top of the zero tax band this year, thus reducing income next year, thus reducing tax burden next year. Correct?
The one issue is that I have already paid out in dividends all of the retained profits for my company from the 10/11 tax year.
The bank account now only contains Company Tax owed, NI(Employer/Employee) owed and PAYE owed.
If I paid a further £2902.40 in dividends this would essentially be using the Company Tax "pot" which is simply sitting there until Jan 2012.
Is it ok and legal to do this? Obviously the first dividend issued for the 11/12 year would be £2902.40 LESS than normal, thus the Company Tax "pot" would be repaid in asap, ie April (I'm not stupid!).
It seems to all work out to me but I just wondered if from an accounting and legal point of view you can issue dividends however/whenever you like as long as you have the cash to cover your tax debts when they are eventually due?
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