I know the title sounds like another n00b question who deserves to be but I was thinking about this scenario last night...
All figures rounded up for ease of calculations...
For the first 3 months of financial year I invoice client £10,000 + VAT and pay myself £500 per month.
At the end of the quarter I pay the VAT man his full money (not flat rate or anything).
If nothing else went through the books for the year then...
Invoiced £10,000
Payroll £1,500
Profit £8,500
Corp Tax £1,700 (assuming 20%)
If however I lent £500 (from my savings) into the company in month 4 to cover the wages then it changes to...
Invoiced £10,000
Payroll £2,000
Profit £8,000
Corp Tax £1,600 (assuming 20%)
however all I have done is lent the company £500 to pay me £500 but reduced the tax bill.
Is this allowed/right/wrong/indifferent, and if so as I have lent the company £500 does this go into the directors loan account (but as a debt to me rather than a loan to me).
All figures rounded up for ease of calculations...
For the first 3 months of financial year I invoice client £10,000 + VAT and pay myself £500 per month.
At the end of the quarter I pay the VAT man his full money (not flat rate or anything).
If nothing else went through the books for the year then...
Invoiced £10,000
Payroll £1,500
Profit £8,500
Corp Tax £1,700 (assuming 20%)
If however I lent £500 (from my savings) into the company in month 4 to cover the wages then it changes to...
Invoiced £10,000
Payroll £2,000
Profit £8,000
Corp Tax £1,600 (assuming 20%)
however all I have done is lent the company £500 to pay me £500 but reduced the tax bill.
Is this allowed/right/wrong/indifferent, and if so as I have lent the company £500 does this go into the directors loan account (but as a debt to me rather than a loan to me).
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