Hi, before I go to an accountant and ask this question, I thought I'd pose it on here as there seems to be quite a bit of accounting expertise here (I used to post a long time ago on here as ScottDotNet).
To cut a very, very long story short (if there are qualified accountants on the forum who think they can give me further guidance, I'd be happy to appoint them and fill you in on the full story), I am currently arranging a main residence mortgage on a house which my sister is going to live in, and which her, my father and myself are going to pay for (brief overview, her husband has walked out, deserted her and young son, she doesn't want to sit on her arse on benefits, so we're seeing this as a family investment). The reason I am arranging the main residence mortgage is because my sister needs to move to be close to my parents (so they can help look after kid), and the area they live in is beyond her price range (however, we are getting the house from a family friend heavily discounted, so great investment potential). My parents have a main residence mortgage on their house as well, so they can't have it in their name either. A buy to let mortgage won't cover the value of the house, as these we're told are based on the approximate monthly earnings of the property. Anyway, I'm rambling on, my question is basically this - if the mortgage is in my name, the house deeds are in my name, yet my sister and father contribute to the cost of the mortgage, does that affect my tax position? My guess is, most definately. However our IFA (who is regulated by the FSA etc etc) says "it should be ok"... well I'm sorry, "it should be ok" is not going to help me sleep at night...
Has anyone had any similar experience? Or can give me advice on this? I'm especially concerned as, being an IT contractor, I don't want to give hector any additional reason to bend me over.
To cut a very, very long story short (if there are qualified accountants on the forum who think they can give me further guidance, I'd be happy to appoint them and fill you in on the full story), I am currently arranging a main residence mortgage on a house which my sister is going to live in, and which her, my father and myself are going to pay for (brief overview, her husband has walked out, deserted her and young son, she doesn't want to sit on her arse on benefits, so we're seeing this as a family investment). The reason I am arranging the main residence mortgage is because my sister needs to move to be close to my parents (so they can help look after kid), and the area they live in is beyond her price range (however, we are getting the house from a family friend heavily discounted, so great investment potential). My parents have a main residence mortgage on their house as well, so they can't have it in their name either. A buy to let mortgage won't cover the value of the house, as these we're told are based on the approximate monthly earnings of the property. Anyway, I'm rambling on, my question is basically this - if the mortgage is in my name, the house deeds are in my name, yet my sister and father contribute to the cost of the mortgage, does that affect my tax position? My guess is, most definately. However our IFA (who is regulated by the FSA etc etc) says "it should be ok"... well I'm sorry, "it should be ok" is not going to help me sleep at night...
Has anyone had any similar experience? Or can give me advice on this? I'm especially concerned as, being an IT contractor, I don't want to give hector any additional reason to bend me over.
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