Probably one for my accountant really - but thought it might be a general interest question...
My company is about to buy some second hand computer hardware from a private individual. Am I correct in my assumption that all the company needs is to get the seller to generate an invoice for the goods and that there is no vat as 1) it's a private sale and 2) the goods are second hand?
My company is about to buy some second hand computer hardware from a private individual. Am I correct in my assumption that all the company needs is to get the seller to generate an invoice for the goods and that there is no vat as 1) it's a private sale and 2) the goods are second hand?
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