Hello,
I've a strange case with one of possible contracts. therefore running some sanity checks/due-diligence.
let's say:
1) I'm contractor with MyContract-%^&-LTD - which is UK-registered (incl. VAT)
2) Agent is say CambridgeInc455 - Denmark-registered.
3) End-client GibberishInsurance4532 with physical presence (Bank Station) and registration in UK (Companies House, VAT)
4) GibberishInsurance4532 has an umbrella called GibberishInternational01100 based in Germany (EU)
I provide services (not VAT exempt type) directly in UK offices of GibberishInsurance4532
(so both me and end-client in UK, therefore should be subject of VAT from HMRC perspective)
CambridgeInc455 autogenerates my invoice (without VAT due to UK/EU reverse charge),
receives a payment from GibberishInternational01100
and pays to me (without VAT of course).
On a paper-trail it seems clean (contract is with Denmark company and specifies German company as end client)
In reality (which in a way differs from what's on a paper) - UK-VAT company provides services to UK-VAT company (but without VAT charged on invoice despite not being exempt)
Does this represent tax avoidance/evasion scheme with recommendation not to sign such contract terms? (from a governance/integrity/ethics/etc. perspectives)
I understand what on a paper it's clean (because it has only partial endpoints distributed internationally, therefore is missing the links), thus in practice probably 99% are getting away with this. Also aware what how fraud is defined and what it's criminal.
But how it's in reality? (Ltd governance principles: transparency, risk, accountability, fairness). Are these schemes a common thing? Or something to stay away from?
Had a clients previously who were physically and legally/tax-based in EU (with me working remotely from UK-Ltd).
But this chained approach looks a bit dodgy, so trying to figure out if I'm not freaking out of nothing due paranoia for compliance.
Thank you.
I've a strange case with one of possible contracts. therefore running some sanity checks/due-diligence.
let's say:
1) I'm contractor with MyContract-%^&-LTD - which is UK-registered (incl. VAT)
2) Agent is say CambridgeInc455 - Denmark-registered.
3) End-client GibberishInsurance4532 with physical presence (Bank Station) and registration in UK (Companies House, VAT)
4) GibberishInsurance4532 has an umbrella called GibberishInternational01100 based in Germany (EU)
I provide services (not VAT exempt type) directly in UK offices of GibberishInsurance4532
(so both me and end-client in UK, therefore should be subject of VAT from HMRC perspective)
CambridgeInc455 autogenerates my invoice (without VAT due to UK/EU reverse charge),
receives a payment from GibberishInternational01100
and pays to me (without VAT of course).
On a paper-trail it seems clean (contract is with Denmark company and specifies German company as end client)
In reality (which in a way differs from what's on a paper) - UK-VAT company provides services to UK-VAT company (but without VAT charged on invoice despite not being exempt)
Does this represent tax avoidance/evasion scheme with recommendation not to sign such contract terms? (from a governance/integrity/ethics/etc. perspectives)
I understand what on a paper it's clean (because it has only partial endpoints distributed internationally, therefore is missing the links), thus in practice probably 99% are getting away with this. Also aware what how fraud is defined and what it's criminal.
But how it's in reality? (Ltd governance principles: transparency, risk, accountability, fairness). Are these schemes a common thing? Or something to stay away from?
Had a clients previously who were physically and legally/tax-based in EU (with me working remotely from UK-Ltd).
But this chained approach looks a bit dodgy, so trying to figure out if I'm not freaking out of nothing due paranoia for compliance.
Thank you.

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