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Intercompany Loan SPV

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    #21
    Originally posted by Craig@Clarity View Post
    Yes I'm sure about this. Ask him about Franked Investments
    Let me correct myself. They used to be called Franked Investments but since the change in 2016 and the abolition of tax credits, it's simply exempt from CT if the dividends are from UK company to UK company. You'd just adjust for the dividend income on the tax computation. Still no CT consequence though

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      #22
      Originally posted by Craig@Clarity View Post
      Let me correct myself. They used to be called Franked Investments but since the change in 2016 and the abolition of tax credits, it's simply exempt from CT if the dividends are from UK company to UK company. You'd just adjust for the dividend income on the tax computation. Still no CT consequence though
      Agreed.

      If your accountant is advising you dividends are taxable when received by a company, I would recommend you get another accountant - that's basic stuff.

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        #23
        Originally posted by Craig@Clarity View Post
        Let me correct myself. They used to be called Franked Investments but since the change in 2016 and the abolition of tax credits, it's simply exempt from CT if the dividends are from UK company to UK company. You'd just adjust for the dividend income on the tax computation. Still no CT consequence though
        Thanks for the clarification and you are indeed correct. I may have misconstrued this due to my accountant setting this up a certain way in FreeAgent. It appears FreeAgent can not handle this scenario and shows the dividend is liable to CT.

        In reality, the accountant would adjust for this in the tax computation separately regardless is what FreeAgent is showing.

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          #24
          Originally posted by LoanCharged View Post
          Thanks for the clarification and you are indeed correct. I may have misconstrued this due to my accountant setting this up a certain way in FreeAgent. It appears FreeAgent can not handle this scenario and shows the dividend is liable to CT.

          In reality, the accountant would adjust for this in the tax computation separately regardless is what FreeAgent is showing.
          That would be the best way (for your accountant to adjust for it separately). However, if you're dead set on having Freeagent give you a more accurate estimate, the work around that I can see would be to create an admin expense account and untick the box that says allowable for tax. Yes, it's an expense account rather than an income/sales account and you'll end up with a credit balance on this newly created account, but it could work out your CT more accurately. I've not tried or tested it but if my logic is right, it's a rough and dirty work around.

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            #25
            Originally posted by Craig@Clarity View Post
            That would be the best way (for your accountant to adjust for it separately). However, if you're dead set on having Freeagent give you a more accurate estimate, the work around that I can see would be to create an admin expense account and untick the box that says allowable for tax. Yes, it's an expense account rather than an income/sales account and you'll end up with a credit balance on this newly created account, but it could work out your CT more accurately. I've not tried or tested it but if my logic is right, it's a rough and dirty work around.
            I think I have cracked it! I created a new Income category called (Intercompany Dividend) and allocated the payments to that. I then added a journal entry moving the Intercompany Dividend to the Contra account. The P&L now looks spot on as does the Balance Sheet.

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              #26
              interest free loan

              Originally posted by craigy1874 View Post
              This works well. But there is no need to charge interest and it is tax neutral so I wouldn't bother.
              Are you sure interest doesn't need to be charged at market rate?
              I see many accountancy related websites suggesting it does, e.g.
              FRS 102: Loans between related parties | AccountingWEB

              What if the loan goes beyond a tax year?

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                #27
                Originally posted by ChimpMaster View Post
                You don't need to charge interest. You don't need to make (regular) repayments. You can repay whenever it suits.
                Are you sure no need to charge interest as many accountancy websites suggesting should charge market rate?

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                  #28
                  Originally posted by ChimpMaster View Post
                  I'm not experienced / knowledgeable on changing the SIC of your IT Co to another SIC , and then starting up another company for your IT business. It doesn't sit right with me but at the same time I can't find anything wrong with it. Will be interesting to see what the others on CUK think about it.
                  You're right, it's nonsense.

                  No bank is going to provide a mortgage for a company with a changed SIC, the reason is all that pre-BTL history is deemed a risk.

                  Banks will lend to already existing BTL Ltds or new SPV Ltds.

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