Hi
Due to financial/directorship irregularities with my old limited company (X) which I have discussed in another thread, I created a new company (Y) with just a single director, myself, in September of last year.
The work I currently perform is delivered to a medium-sized UK IT services company, but my contract is always with an intermediate payroll company, who use a self-billing mechanism to facilitate the payment of invoices and issuing of remittances. Payment terms are 30 days.
In September I arranged a new contract with the payroll company to reflect the fact that I would now be providing my services through Y.
Before Christmas I looked through the automated remittances as part of the quarterly VAT adminstration, and I noticed that a remittance dated 30/9/17 made out to Y was actually for services performed by X in the month of August 2017. VAT has not been charged, because Y (obviously) was not VAT-registered for that August period of work. (The payroll company added a comment to that effect.)
Initially, my accountant thought that I could simply bill the work back to X. But the accountant now says that this is not possible as the automated remittance is made out to Y.
I have raised this with the end customer (IT services company), but they are not interested as my contract has never been with them and referred me back to the payroll company. Said payroll company were replace in November 2016 by another, and are not responding to my query.
In a perfect world I would have spotted this earlier, but it is what it is.
I wrote to HMRC to explain the matter about a week ago, but have not heard anything back.
I would appreciate any thoughts and observations on how this issue might get resolved, lest I fail to make progess with the three parties concerned.
Thanks in advance,
greene
Due to financial/directorship irregularities with my old limited company (X) which I have discussed in another thread, I created a new company (Y) with just a single director, myself, in September of last year.
The work I currently perform is delivered to a medium-sized UK IT services company, but my contract is always with an intermediate payroll company, who use a self-billing mechanism to facilitate the payment of invoices and issuing of remittances. Payment terms are 30 days.
In September I arranged a new contract with the payroll company to reflect the fact that I would now be providing my services through Y.
Before Christmas I looked through the automated remittances as part of the quarterly VAT adminstration, and I noticed that a remittance dated 30/9/17 made out to Y was actually for services performed by X in the month of August 2017. VAT has not been charged, because Y (obviously) was not VAT-registered for that August period of work. (The payroll company added a comment to that effect.)
Initially, my accountant thought that I could simply bill the work back to X. But the accountant now says that this is not possible as the automated remittance is made out to Y.
I have raised this with the end customer (IT services company), but they are not interested as my contract has never been with them and referred me back to the payroll company. Said payroll company were replace in November 2016 by another, and are not responding to my query.
In a perfect world I would have spotted this earlier, but it is what it is.
I wrote to HMRC to explain the matter about a week ago, but have not heard anything back.
I would appreciate any thoughts and observations on how this issue might get resolved, lest I fail to make progess with the three parties concerned.
Thanks in advance,
greene
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