Quick maths test

[SlipTheJab]

It wasn't intentional to drip-feed the information, I just thought that VAT would not be chargeable so didn't want to confuse the question, but apologies for omitting it first time round.

Worked out the sums in the end and, as it turns out the client are happy for me to invoice their UK subsidiary so I will simply bill £500+VAT as originally intended.

Cheers for all the help though.

Just round it up to a nice even £750

[Project Monkey]

Hang on...


If you're providing a service that is non-VAT chargable, then you don't charge the client VAT and don't pay VAT to HMRC either. In other words, you just exclude the invoice(s) from your VAT payable calculations.

[jamesbrown]

Hang on...


If you're providing a service that is non-VAT chargable, then you don't charge the client VAT and don't pay VAT to HMRC either. In other words, you just exclude the invoice(s) from your VAT payable calculations.

As indicated above, if the supply is outside of the scope of VAT, it isn't included in the FRS turnover calculation, so no VAT is charged and none is due. Likewise, if you're not on the FRS, there will be no VAT charged and none due (although it's included in Box 6 each quarter).