APN / Settlement: How is Other Income calculated?

[webberg]

So I have in writing from HMRC that the formula for the Other Income (Loan) amount is simply (Basic Salary x 4) – Benefit in Kind. Simples?

Except only 2 of the Offers follow this formula while the other Offers make absolutely no sense whatsoever. Not much joined up thinking going on here …..

Not much in HMRC is joined up.

If you think the estimate is wrong ask them to demonstrate that they have used their "best knowledge and belief" to arrive at the number.

[hereweg0again]

Update

So I have in writing from HMRC that the formula for the Other Income (Loan) amount is simply (Basic Salary x 4) – Benefit in Kind. Simples?

Except only 2 of the Offers follow this formula while the other Offers make absolutely no sense whatsoever. Not much joined up thinking going on here …..

[bstar1]

Before anyone shoots this thread down – I appreciate that there are examples of APN’s on this board and rough calculations as to how it will get added up. If there are more specific calculations then I simply haven’t found them yet. Which is why I raise the question:

How is Other Income calculated?

On our APNs it was simply 4 x EBT Salary. However I have four years of Settlement Calculations now all with a different Other Income figures to those on the APNs. My husband's two are higher (much higher) and my two are lower. Which begs the question is HMRC using a consistent formula?

I’m probably missing something very obvious …. Please advise.

Short Answer "No"...it's almost a wet finger in the air.

[hereweg0again]

Before anyone shoots this thread down – I appreciate that there are examples of APN’s on this board and rough calculations as to how it will get added up. If there are more specific calculations then I simply haven’t found them yet. Which is why I raise the question:

How is Other Income calculated?

On our APNs it was simply 4 x EBT Salary. However I have four years of Settlement Calculations now all with a different Other Income figures to those on the APNs. My husband's two are higher (much higher) and my two are lower. Which begs the question is HMRC using a consistent formula?

I’m probably missing something very obvious …. Please advise.