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Previously on "Should I charge VAT to Non-EU Client? Do I need to pass it onto HMRC?"

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  • jamesbrown
    replied
    If it's outside of the scope of UK VAT, it's outside of the scope of any VAT calculation, whether under the FRS or otherwise. You just need to determine the first part.

    Leave a comment:


  • Ketchup
    replied
    What does your accountant suggest?

    Leave a comment:


  • captainham
    replied
    And this:

    HM Revenue & Customs: Exports, supplies of goods and services overseas: charging VAT

    Leave a comment:


  • MirrorsEdge
    replied
    Thanks..!

    Yes just looked, there's plenty on this topic for sure. Seems like it's genuinely down to where the services are 'supplied'. It's a bit vague. I guess some of these laws were in place before cloud-based global working came into existence...

    Leave a comment:


  • captainham
    replied
    You'll be wanting this:

    http://forums.contractoruk.com/welco...uk-forums.html

    Leave a comment:


  • Should I charge VAT to Non-EU Client? Do I need to pass it onto HMRC?

    Hi -

    I'm UK based with a Ltd. company.

    I'm looking at some work that will involve me doing some web development in the UK; but where the end client has a small base in the UK and a larger, main base in Singapore.

    The company that found me this work is based in UAE; and I understand the singaporean company get invoiced from and pay UAE.

    I'm being asked to do a few weeks work, based in the UK, which will involve workshops/over the phone stuff with Singapore.

    My contact at the UAE company (who lives both in the UK and Dubai) advised me I should invoice without VAT, to the UAE company.

    I am on the VAT flat rate scheme. If i invoice my client in UAE without VAT; would i be liable to pass on the vat to HMRC, or does it fall outside the scope of VAT?

    Tks
    Last edited by MirrorsEdge; 4 December 2012, 14:11.
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