• Visitors can check out the Forum FAQ by clicking this link. You have to register before you can post: click the REGISTER link above to proceed. To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below. View our Forum Privacy Policy.
  • Want to receive the latest contracting news and advice straight to your inbox? Sign up to the ContractorUK newsletter here. Every sign up will also be entered into a draw to WIN £100 Amazon vouchers!

Reply to: P35 Qu 6

Collapse

You are not logged in or you do not have permission to access this page. This could be due to one of several reasons:

  • You are not logged in. If you are already registered, fill in the form below to log in, or follow the "Sign Up" link to register a new account.
  • You may not have sufficient privileges to access this page. Are you trying to edit someone else's post, access administrative features or some other privileged system?
  • If you are trying to post, the administrator may have disabled your account, or it may be awaiting activation.

Previously on "P35 Qu 6"

Collapse

  • Lewis
    replied
    FYI -

    http://www.contractoruk.com/news/004309.html

    And some further reading for anyone finding this through Google:

    What is a Service Company? (HMRC's definition)
    IT contractors don't have to answer Q6 on P35
    Last edited by Contractor UK; 13 June 2011, 13:32.

    Leave a comment:


  • djped
    replied
    (repeated above)

    Leave a comment:


  • djped
    replied
    I've just done my return, answered YES/NO.
    I'm your typical IT contractor but I've made sure my contract has been reviewed and found outside of IR35.

    I can't see how reading the helpsheet you could answer NO to part 1 if you are (like me) a typical contractor using a Ltd. Yes I performed services for a client, yes there was a contract between the client and the company of which I was a shareholder and yes the companies income during the year was more than half dervied from those services...

    So I'm taking honesty as my policy.... (probably where tax is concerned not the best option )


    Quote helpsheet:
    The first question should be answered yes if:
    • an individual performed services (intellectual, manual
    or a mixture of the two) for a client or clients, and
    • the services were provided under a contract between
    the client and the company of which, at any time
    during the tax year, the individual performing the
    services was a shareholder or partner, and
    • the company’s income was, at any time during the tax
    year, derived wholly or mainly (that is, more than half
    of it) from the services performed by the shareholders
    or partners personally.

    Leave a comment:


  • Lewis
    replied
    Originally posted by Little'Old Me View Post
    The accountacyweb from the link (have you read it?) article includes the following example:

    "2. A firm of accountants – two partners, and no staff

    Clearly, once again we have a potential “service company” for Question 6, as this time we have a partnership. The responses to points one and two are an unequivocal “yes”. On to point three. Once again are these services performed “personally” by the partners? There is no doubt that if they are, the answer is yes and we have to go on and consider Question 2. But what if the firm employed someone? Although there are no employees at the moment, does this mean that the firm could use the services of any available and suitably qualified individual to perform the services for the client? I think they could, and here I contest the use of “personally”. Neither of the partners performs the services in his personal capacity, and the services could easily be provided by someone else within the firm. So I’m thinking “no” to point three, making part 1 a “no” again.

    As I have shown, although the guidance is much improved over last year, the entire question turns on the interpretation of the word “personally” in part 1 of the question. If I am right, then the question should not be an issue for many businesses currently concerned about this issue. Part 1 being negative, part 2 follows as a negative – job done."

    I'm happy with this interpretation and intend to follow it until the HMRC tell me otherwise. I am satisfied I am following their rules and therefore am not intentionally doing anything wrong.
    Clearly the article is a discussion and people are putting forward different points of view and I have yet to come to a decision myself so I am not telling you it is one way or the other. I am asking how people interpret the wording to enable me to make a decision.

    The PCG, QDOS and most accountants seem to have taken the view we should answer yes/no. I am not so happy with that interpretation and so want to get all the facts clear in my head.

    The problem with the "I can substitute" argument is that there seem to be some pretty clear comments against it, such as the one I have already posted (have you read it?) which states

    I was on the ICAEW committee that met HMRC on this one, and regret to inform you that they think that 'personally' means 'in person' as the last commentator suggested.

    Leave a comment:


  • Lewis
    replied
    Originally posted by BolshieBastard View Post
    For the last ******* time, you dont need to answer this question!

    And that is advice I have from tax counsel.
    Is this advice published anywhere so I can print it out and keep it in my records? What is the name of the tax counsel?

    Leave a comment:


  • BolshieBastard
    replied
    Originally posted by Lewis View Post
    That time of year again and I am still not sure about this question on the P35. I have read all the latest threads I can find on various sites and it still does not seem clear cut to me except it seems most experts are recommending yes/no for a IR35 not-caught company. Possibly the best thread is this one http://www.accountingweb.co.uk/cgi-b...%20%25B%20%25Y.

    So what is everyone else going to answer and why?
    For the last ******* time, you dont need to answer this question!

    And that is advice I have from tax counsel.

    Leave a comment:


  • Little'Old Me
    replied
    The accountacyweb from the link (have you read it?) article includes the following example:

    "2. A firm of accountants – two partners, and no staff

    Clearly, once again we have a potential “service company” for Question 6, as this time we have a partnership. The responses to points one and two are an unequivocal “yes”. On to point three. Once again are these services performed “personally” by the partners? There is no doubt that if they are, the answer is yes and we have to go on and consider Question 2. But what if the firm employed someone? Although there are no employees at the moment, does this mean that the firm could use the services of any available and suitably qualified individual to perform the services for the client? I think they could, and here I contest the use of “personally”. Neither of the partners performs the services in his personal capacity, and the services could easily be provided by someone else within the firm. So I’m thinking “no” to point three, making part 1 a “no” again.

    As I have shown, although the guidance is much improved over last year, the entire question turns on the interpretation of the word “personally” in part 1 of the question. If I am right, then the question should not be an issue for many businesses currently concerned about this issue. Part 1 being negative, part 2 follows as a negative – job done."

    I'm happy with this interpretation and intend to follow it until the HMRC tell me otherwise. I am satisfied I am following their rules and therefore am not intentionally doing anything wrong.

    Leave a comment:


  • Ravello
    replied
    I answered yes/no last year and will do so again this year..

    It appears a bit more clear cut this year than last, but either way if you're confident you're operating outside of IR35 yes/no is perfectly valid and defendable (should it come to that).

    Leave a comment:


  • Lewis
    replied
    Originally posted by Weltchy View Post
    Dunno about you guys, but I regularly invoke my right of substitution, and also provide my skills as a substitute for other contractors when they are unavailable to work!
    Opinion seems to be unless you were substituted for more than half the work done by the company you need to answer yes/no too.

    The theory goes... (1) as an individual you have performed services during the year, (2) services were provided under contract and you were a director or shareholder and (3) more than half the company income was derived from you doing the work.

    So that is Yes/No (assuming you are outside IR35) even if you have provided a substitute and been a substitute. Although clearly this helps your IR35 status people like PCG, QDOS etc.. seem to think you must still answer yes/no.

    Leave a comment:


  • Weltchy
    replied
    Dunno about you guys, but I regularly invoke my right of substitution, and also provide my skills as a substitute for other contractors when they are unavailable to work!

    Leave a comment:


  • Lewis
    replied
    Originally posted by Little'Old Me View Post
    Some will and others won't. I am answering no/no for any client that can confirm they could use others (employees or contractors) in their "contracts", or if more than 50% of their turnover is not for the Labour part of their services.

    If a client is not sure, I ask them what would happen if you were unable to work for 6 months? Who would provide the services? If they would not continue to provide the services through their company, because they could not "contract it out", or employ someone to do it, then they are a "Service Company" and the answer is Yes/No. In these cases, the Company can only have an income if they can provide their personal services.

    As an Accountant if I was not able to work for 6 months, I could easily arrange for someone else to work for my company and carry on the "services" for clients. I may not make much or any money, but the services provided by my company are not dependant on me, providing my personal services to the company, advantageous perhaps , but not essential.
    Well that is exactly the logic I followed for answering last year. But as far as I can tell from reading lots of sources the "I can substitute" argument has been discredited. Opionion seems to be this year that the question is simply asking if the person did the work themselves.

    Leave a comment:


  • eazy
    replied
    HMRC Advice on Q6

    HMRC Advice - Page 18

    http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/helpsheets/e10.pdf

    Leave a comment:


  • Little'Old Me
    replied
    Originally posted by Pickle2 View Post
    Last year I was No / No.

    My understanding is that now the question has been clarified, I will be answering yes / no, along with thousands of others, be they accountants, plumbers, electricians, window cleaners, child minders, financial advisor's etc etc. or IT contractors.
    Some will and others won't. I am answering no/no for any client that can confirm they could use others (employees or contractors) in their "contracts", or if more than 50% of their turnover is not for the Labour part of their services.

    If a client is not sure, I ask them what would happen if you were unable to work for 6 months? Who would provide the services? If they would not continue to provide the services through their company, because they could not "contract it out", or employ someone to do it, then they are a "Service Company" and the answer is Yes/No. In these cases, the Company can only have an income if they can provide their personal services.

    As an Accountant if I was not able to work for 6 months, I could easily arrange for someone else to work for my company and carry on the "services" for clients. I may not make much or any money, but the services provided by my company are not dependant on me, providing my personal services to the company, advantageous perhaps , but not essential.

    Leave a comment:


  • Lewis
    replied
    Originally posted by Pickle2 View Post
    Last year I was No / No.

    My understanding is that now the question has been clarified, I will be answering yes / no, along with thousands of others, be they accoutnants, plumbers, electricians, window cleaners, child minders, financial advisors etc etc. or IT contractors.
    Yes this is my thinking too.

    Leave a comment:


  • Pickle2
    replied
    Last year I was No / No.

    My understanding is that now the question has been clarified, I will be answering yes / no, along with thousands of others, be they accoutnants, plumbers, electricians, window cleaners, child minders, financial advisors etc etc. or IT contractors.

    Leave a comment:

Working...
X