So here's another - possibly obvious - question: if, as in my case, I jointly own the house (my only asset) with my husband, can ownership be transferred to his name only, and if so how does this sit with any demands for payment from HMRC?
We still have a mortgage on the home and have been working hard to try to pay this off over the last twelve years.
APNs, LC2019 and all other noxious demands from HMRC will put an end to that :-(
We still have a mortgage on the home and have been working hard to try to pay this off over the last twelve years.
APNs, LC2019 and all other noxious demands from HMRC will put an end to that :-(

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