I'm asking the question below because:
a. I really don't know the answer
b. I'm interested in opinions and may use them to make representations.
The proposed new tax charge on 5th April 2019 is going to apply (we're told) to all outstanding loans from a disguised remuneration scheme.
If a case is taken to Tribunal and before the above date, proves that the loans are just that, loans, does that mean that the charge in 2019 cannot apply or will it still apply if the loan remains outstanding as, although not taxable as income, they remain disguised remuneration loans?
For me, it would be completely counter-intuitive for a win in Court to be overturned retrospectively by legislation and would (or should) spark a huge backlash over legal protections for taxpayers etc.
What happens if the litigation wins (loans not taxable) before 2019 but it is reversed after that date?
Would the litigation have to try and prove that the arrangements used, even if the loans are not taxable income, are not part of a "disguised remuneration" scheme. That is a phrase that is difficult to pin down legally and it is not impossible for a judge to say that the loan is not taxable but is still disguised remuneration, especially for pre December 2010 payments.
The Chartered Institute of Taxation will be making representations on the Consultation in due course. I am hoping to be part of that process both via the CIOT and as Big Group. Those comments will be the more powerful for including a broad range of views.
I'm not expecting confirmed answers (although if there is a legal analysis out there that solves the point, that would be nice) but thoughts and views.
Thanks
a. I really don't know the answer
b. I'm interested in opinions and may use them to make representations.
The proposed new tax charge on 5th April 2019 is going to apply (we're told) to all outstanding loans from a disguised remuneration scheme.
If a case is taken to Tribunal and before the above date, proves that the loans are just that, loans, does that mean that the charge in 2019 cannot apply or will it still apply if the loan remains outstanding as, although not taxable as income, they remain disguised remuneration loans?
For me, it would be completely counter-intuitive for a win in Court to be overturned retrospectively by legislation and would (or should) spark a huge backlash over legal protections for taxpayers etc.
What happens if the litigation wins (loans not taxable) before 2019 but it is reversed after that date?
Would the litigation have to try and prove that the arrangements used, even if the loans are not taxable income, are not part of a "disguised remuneration" scheme. That is a phrase that is difficult to pin down legally and it is not impossible for a judge to say that the loan is not taxable but is still disguised remuneration, especially for pre December 2010 payments.
The Chartered Institute of Taxation will be making representations on the Consultation in due course. I am hoping to be part of that process both via the CIOT and as Big Group. Those comments will be the more powerful for including a broad range of views.
I'm not expecting confirmed answers (although if there is a legal analysis out there that solves the point, that would be nice) but thoughts and views.
Thanks
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