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If your Corporation Tax accounting period doesn't coincide with the Corporation Tax financial year
If your accounting period doesn't run from 1 April to 31 March it spans two Corporation Tax financial years. You'll need to apportion your company's taxable profits between the two financial years on a time basis.
For example, if your company's Corporation Tax accounting period runs from 1 July 2008 to 30 June 2009:
The first nine months (274 days) fall into the 2008-09 Corporation Tax financial year. So you'll pay tax on 274/365ths of your taxable profit at the 2008-09 rates.
The remaining three months (91 days) fall into the 2009-10 financial year. So you'll pay tax on 91/365ths of your taxable profit at the 2009-10 rates.
If your Corporation Tax accounting period doesn't coincide with the Corporation Tax financial year
If your accounting period doesn't run from 1 April to 31 March it spans two Corporation Tax financial years. You'll need to apportion your company's taxable profits between the two financial years on a time basis.
For example, if your company's Corporation Tax accounting period runs from 1 July 2008 to 30 June 2009:
The first nine months (274 days) fall into the 2008-09 Corporation Tax financial year. So you'll pay tax on 274/365ths of your taxable profit at the 2008-09 rates.
The remaining three months (91 days) fall into the 2009-10 financial year. So you'll pay tax on 91/365ths of your taxable profit at the 2009-10 rates.
Yes - that was my thinking.
6 months at 21%, 6 months at 20%. So, if I was invoicing 10K at end of Oct, 5K would be at 21%, 5K at 20%. If that invoice was delayed till 1 November, it would be 10K at 20%, hence 0.5% saving.
However, I've since learned you have pay your tax when the money is earned, not when invoiced, so, as tractor said, it would be stupid.
6 months at 21%, 6 months at 20%. So, if I was invoicing 10K at end of Oct, 5K would be at 21%, 5K at 20%. If that invoice was delayed till 1 November, it would be 10K at 20%, hence 0.5% saving.
However, I've since learned you have pay your tax when the money is earned, not when invoiced, so, as tractor said, it would be stupid.
Because if you have a history of invoicing on the last day of the month and the revenue do a random check on you, it is one of the first things that they look for - intentionally deferred profits.
Well, I never knew that. I tend to invoice when I get around to it (within a few days of course).
Also, since I invoice in Euros, I want the rate to be as bad as possible on invoice day (you have to put converted sterling rate on invoice for VAT purposes). Probably doesnt make too much difference but its this figure that is used for flat rate vat repayment.
i.e. If one day my euro amount = £7000, and next day it = £6900, then thats £100 less to pay flat rate on (yes, I know its only £14.50)
However, I've since learned you have pay your tax when the money is earned, not when invoiced, so, as tractor said, it would be stupid.
This is a common error we pick up on when we take on a client from accountants who require their clients to use spreadsheets. The period of when the work was done is rarely checked, and so if a client raises an invoice on 1st November for work done in October, this will understate the profits etc.
This probably does not matter too much in the middle of the year, but if this is done at the company's year-end, then if HMRC poke their nose in, they will penalise the company for it.
i.e. If one day my euro amount = £7000, and next day it = £6900, then thats £100 less to pay flat rate on (yes, I know its only £14.50)
Are you quite sure about that? Exchange adjustments are just "other income" positive or negative. As such I would expect that to be included in the flat rate turnover. It is business income.
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