Un-****ing-believable
http://www.thisislondon.co.uk/standa...me-expenses.do
How on earth can one's "main home" be one which you visit once a month? WTF??
The DPP's pisspoor QC noted : "'Only or main residence' is not defined in the House of Lords' expenses scheme itself; nor is it defined in legislation." - and so, by some twisted logic only a highly-trained QC could come up with, she cannot be prosecuted because, evidently, a home you visit once per month can, on some planet occupied by bewigged arseholes, be defined as one's main home.
You'd think - just possibly - that common sense would define one's main residence as the one where you spent the most time.
But no. Because there's no "definition" of main residence, anything goes.
I bring this up because in the judgement on our case, it was deemed amongst other things that users of the scheme were not paying their "fair share" of tax, and that the thrust of the law was "evidently" to stop such schemes being set up and abusing loopholes.
So, in one case it's the very letter of the law (or apparent lack of it) which stands - and in another, it boils down to opinion and intent.
I just don't get it. What have I missed?
http://www.thisislondon.co.uk/standa...me-expenses.do
How on earth can one's "main home" be one which you visit once a month? WTF??
The DPP's pisspoor QC noted : "'Only or main residence' is not defined in the House of Lords' expenses scheme itself; nor is it defined in legislation." - and so, by some twisted logic only a highly-trained QC could come up with, she cannot be prosecuted because, evidently, a home you visit once per month can, on some planet occupied by bewigged arseholes, be defined as one's main home.
You'd think - just possibly - that common sense would define one's main residence as the one where you spent the most time.
But no. Because there's no "definition" of main residence, anything goes.
I bring this up because in the judgement on our case, it was deemed amongst other things that users of the scheme were not paying their "fair share" of tax, and that the thrust of the law was "evidently" to stop such schemes being set up and abusing loopholes.
So, in one case it's the very letter of the law (or apparent lack of it) which stands - and in another, it boils down to opinion and intent.
I just don't get it. What have I missed?
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