Originally posted by Ratican
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Mr. Gauke: The Minister says that in the opinion of HMRC, the clause merely clarifies the existing law, and that there has been no litigation. That is presumably because HMRC has not pursued litigation. If HMRC is so confident that the measure merely clarifies the law—I am not making a case one way or the other—why is it not bringing litigation against the users of the scheme? (because either a law is clear in the first place or its not

Jane Kennedy: Because the opportunity arises to deal with the matter through legislation and to make it clear (but wouldnt that be new legislation Jane? Surely legislation should be black and white

I dont see how the revenue can win this argument. I want to book a seat now (hello Mr Brannigan


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