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Directors Loan query

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    #21
    Originally posted by TheCyclingProgrammer View Post
    Because the spouse is a shareholder and is entitled to take a loan subject to agreement by all relevant parties and the usual rules regarding participator loans. Read the rest of the thread.

    https://www.whitefieldtax.co.uk/help...-shareholders/
    Yes, they are perfectly entitled to take a loan, I am not arguing that point. I am arguing who the benefit in kind should be charged on.

    In my eyes, the shareholder is only getting a loan because they are the spouse of the fee-earning director. This to me means that the loans should be aggregated for BIK purposes and tax charged accordingly.

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