For reasons not worth going into, I have 2 unpaid invoices with a former client outside the EU. They are now just over 2 years old and though the client - a bootstrapped startup - has always strenuously promised their intentions are honourable to pay these back I'm a little tired of the affair.
But the main point of this thread is that corporation tax has already been paid on those invoices. I've asked my accountant/CUK (can't remember which) about this in the past and been told you can annul invoices, but only if you write the client a formal letter saying you are not expecting to get the money.
So my two specific questions, among any other advice or insults I may receive, are:
Other things you might ask about...
- It's not UK/EU so I don't think I can follow the normal "pay on time" stuff
- Similarly engaging a company to chase it up would be very hard
- It's basically a 1-man company, not some corporation trying to pull a fast one
- About £20k.
But the main point of this thread is that corporation tax has already been paid on those invoices. I've asked my accountant/CUK (can't remember which) about this in the past and been told you can annul invoices, but only if you write the client a formal letter saying you are not expecting to get the money.
So my two specific questions, among any other advice or insults I may receive, are:
- Can CT be reclaimed that has actually been paid on defaulted bills, or have I missed the boat?
- Does doing this mean the client is officially off the hook? Does my letter mean they can expect not to pay, or only that I am officially telling them I don't expect them to but that they still owe the money?
Other things you might ask about...
- It's not UK/EU so I don't think I can follow the normal "pay on time" stuff
- Similarly engaging a company to chase it up would be very hard
- It's basically a 1-man company, not some corporation trying to pull a fast one
- About £20k.


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