Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Originally posted by northernladuk
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Even if everything that you write is correct (hint - it utterly isn't!), then that ignores the key bit that I said earlier as well. If the company has no value, then how can a gift of shares be a settlement?
(Hint - it can't be)
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