More time posting than coding
TheCyclingProgrammer Game over man, GAME OVER!
Are they? I don't agree.
Originally Posted by malvolio
Lets say for instance you issue an invoice (making no mention of VAT or VAT pending), then you apply for VAT, the registration comes through and it has been back-dated prior to the invoice date..
You are now obliged to charge VAT on this invoice. Why wouldn't the client be obliged to pay it? And why would they care anyway seeing as they would just reclaim it as input VAT?
The way I see it, putting "VAT registration pending" or similar on your invoice is a common practice but it strikes me as more a courtesy rather than any kind of legal statement. If the OP informed the client at the time he invoiced them that he would be issuing a VAT invoice once his registration comes through then they can have no complaints.
The VAT he is legally obliged to charge?
However, since you won't have charged VAT on them anyway, what do you intend recovering?
Last edited by TheCyclingProgrammer; 13th July 2009 at 10:31.