So this is a tricky one,
Just by way of introduction - I'm a long time reader on these forums but this is the first time I've needed to actually chime in, so apologies for coming straight in with a question
I am doing a house extension and i employed an architect to work on the plans. When I hired him he was not VAT registered and we signed a contract that he would receive 9% in fees of the total cost of the build.
We worked out the initial budget of 150k as an estimate and so was able to deduce how much I was likely to end up paying in the end. Things are broken into stages, A, B, C, D etc. and to date, I have paid for stages A to D based on the cost estimate of 150k.
These invoices for stages A - D were invoiced with no VAT as he was not VAT registered at the time of completing the work / nor at the time of invoicing for the work.
Now, since then he has become VAT registered. Also since then, the cost estimate of the build has increased to 250k - So the money I paid for stages A - D are now, in fact, short of the actual amount required for stages A - D because of the % scale.
To try to be as clear as possible
@150k cost estimate stages A - D cost = £4,725
@250k cost estimate stages A - D cost = £7,875
Now he invoiced me for stages A to D when he was NOT VAT registered and I paid for those services, however, as it's a percentage and it fluctuates with the cost, he has re-invoiced me for the now shortfall in this area, but crucially has invoiced + VAT.
My argument here is that even though he is now VAT registered and must charge VAT - the work that he did in stages A to D were done before he was VAT registered. So where does this leave me? Is he right to be charging VAT here? It doesn't feel right that i should have to pay VAT because of a revised invoice on work completed and invoiced before he was VAT registered?
Hopefully someone can help me out with this one!
Just by way of introduction - I'm a long time reader on these forums but this is the first time I've needed to actually chime in, so apologies for coming straight in with a question
I am doing a house extension and i employed an architect to work on the plans. When I hired him he was not VAT registered and we signed a contract that he would receive 9% in fees of the total cost of the build.
We worked out the initial budget of 150k as an estimate and so was able to deduce how much I was likely to end up paying in the end. Things are broken into stages, A, B, C, D etc. and to date, I have paid for stages A to D based on the cost estimate of 150k.
These invoices for stages A - D were invoiced with no VAT as he was not VAT registered at the time of completing the work / nor at the time of invoicing for the work.
Now, since then he has become VAT registered. Also since then, the cost estimate of the build has increased to 250k - So the money I paid for stages A - D are now, in fact, short of the actual amount required for stages A - D because of the % scale.
To try to be as clear as possible
@150k cost estimate stages A - D cost = £4,725
@250k cost estimate stages A - D cost = £7,875
Now he invoiced me for stages A to D when he was NOT VAT registered and I paid for those services, however, as it's a percentage and it fluctuates with the cost, he has re-invoiced me for the now shortfall in this area, but crucially has invoiced + VAT.
My argument here is that even though he is now VAT registered and must charge VAT - the work that he did in stages A to D were done before he was VAT registered. So where does this leave me? Is he right to be charging VAT here? It doesn't feel right that i should have to pay VAT because of a revised invoice on work completed and invoiced before he was VAT registered?
Hopefully someone can help me out with this one!
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